I would like to put forth 5 questions and then begin to answer them:
1. What did the Old Testament teach about the extent of the atonement?
2. What did the Lord Jesus Christ teach about the extent of the atonement in the Gospels?
3. What did the Apostles teach about the extent of the atonement in the Book of Acts?
4. What did the Apostle Paul teach about the extent of the atonement in his epistles?
5. What did the writers of the rest of the New Testament teach about the extent of the atonement?
1. What did the Old Testament teach about the extent of the atonement?
There is not a whole lot of material about the extent of the atonement in the OT. As a matter of fact, the only passage that comes to mind is Isaiah 53. But before discussing that passage, I would like to say a few words about the concept of atonement in the OT.
According to the Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament (Harris, R. L., Archer, G. L. Jr., and Waltke, B. K., eds.), the Hebrew word that is translated “to make atonement” in the KJV means “to atone by offering a substitute.” “The verb is always used in connection with the removal of sin or defilement, except for Gen. 32:20; Prov. 16:14; and Isa. 28:18 where the related meaning of “appease by a gift” may be observed.” In the OT, when atonement was made for someone, their sin was forgiven and/or their defilement was cleansed. For example, in Lev. 4:20 it says “and the priest shall make an atonement for them, and it shall be forgiven them” and in Lev. 4:26 it says “and the priest shall make an atonement for him as concerning his sin, and it shall be forgiven him.” Further examples can be found in Lev. 4:31, 35; 5:10, 13, 16, 18; 6:7. I am not aware of a single instance in the OT where atonement was made for someone whose sin was not forgiven or whose defilement was not cleansed. There is, however, an interesting passage where God Himself says that the iniquity of certain individuals would never be atoned for, 1 Samuel 3:14. (“And therefore I have sworn unto the house of Eli, that the iniquity of Eli’s house shall not be purged with sacrifice nor offering forever.”). The Hebrew word that is translated “shall … be purged” in this passage is the same verb that is translated “shall make an atonement” in Leviticus. Why would God say that the iniquity of the house of Eli would not be atoned for forever if He was (supposedly) planning on sending the Lord Jesus Christ to atone for that iniquity (according to the doctrine of “unlimited atonement”)? In conclusion, an “atonement” that does not result in the forgiveness of the sins and/or the cleansing of the defilement of the person(s) on whose behalf the atonement is made is a concept that is not found in the OT (to the best of my knowledge).
Before I discuss Isaiah 53, I would like to point out another interesting verse, 1 Samuel 2:25, “Nevertheless they did not heed the voice of their father, because the LORD desired to kill them” (NKJV) The Hebrew word that is translated “desired” here is translated “have pleasure” in Eze 18:23 and Eze 33:11 (NKJV) and can also be translated “delight”. Why would God desire to kill the sons of Eli if He loved them and was planning on sending His Son to die for their sins? Sounds to me like God did not love them.
Now let’s take a look at Isaiah 53. Isaiah 53:5-6 says: “But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.” These verses clearly teach that the Messiah would be “wounded for our transgressions, … bruised for our iniquities” and that the LORD would lay on Him “the iniquity of us all.” Who does the “our” and “us all” refer to? It seems clear from the context that they refer to God’s people, believers (note especially the phrases “our peace” and “we are healed”, which indicates that they have received peace from God and have been healed by Him, which would not apply to unbelievers). This interpretation is confirmed by the last part of verse 8, which clearly states: “for the transgression of my people was he stricken.” It is further confirmed by the last part of verse 11, which states that the Messiah would “justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.” (in other words, He will bear the iniquities of the many that He will justify, the elect). Thus Isaiah 53 clearly teaches that the Messiah would be “wounded … bruised … stricken” for the “transgressions” and “iniquities” of God’s people (believers, the elect).
I cannot recall any passage in the OT which clearly teaches that the Messiah would be “wounded … bruised … stricken” for the “transgressions” and “iniquities” of the entire human race.
2. What did the Lord Jesus Christ teach about the extent of the atonement in the Gospels?
Before looking at what the Lord Jesus Christ taught about the extent of the atonement in the Gospels, I would like to make a few preliminary remarks. First of all, Matthew 1:21 says: “And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.” Notice that it doesn’t say that He will save the entire human race from their sins, but “HIS PEOPLE”. This agrees with what we saw in Isaiah 53 in the previous section. I think it is helpful to keep in mind that the OT was the only Scripture that the Lord Jesus Christ and His disciples had during His time on earth. So if someone had asked Him “What do the Scriptures teach about the extent of the Atonement?”, it seems to me that the only Scriptural answer He could have given would have been something like “Isaiah clearly teaches that the Messiah will suffer for the sins of God’s people.” If someone had further asked “Do the Scriptures teach that the Messiah will suffer for the sins of the entire human race?”, the only Scriptural answer He could have given would have been “No.”
In Matthew 7:23, Jesus said: “And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.” Notice that He did NOT say that He loved them and died for their sins, but since they did not accept Him as their Savior, they unfortunately had to go to hell. If Jesus loved these people and died for their sins, why will He say that He NEVER knew them? Sounds to me like He didn’t love them and didn’t die for their sins.
Another very interesting passage is Matthew 12:31-32: “Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men. And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come.” Mark 3:29 and Luke 12:10 contain similar statements. If Jesus was supposedly going to die for ALL the sins of the entire human race, why did He very emphatically say that “blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven”? Sounds to me like He was not planning on dying for that sin (or for those who commit it).
In John 10:11, the Lord Jesus Christ clearly and explicitly revealed the extent of His atonement. He said: “I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd giveth his life for the sheep.” He did it again in v. 15: “As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.” He was obviously not talking about literal sheep, but was referring to God’s people, the elect, true believers. Note that He did NOT say that He would lay down (give) His life for “the sheep and the goats” or for “the entire human race.” He explicitly and clearly said that He would lay down (give) His life for “the sheep.” Period. In John 10:26, the Lord made it quite clear that not all are His sheep: “But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.” Notice that He did not say “you are not my sheep because you do not believe in me” but rather “ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep.” In Matthew 20:28 & 26:28 and Mark 10:45 & 14:24 He revealed that His sheep would be “many”. In these 4 verses, He talked of giving His life as a ransom and shedding His blood for the forgiveness of sins, and He NEVER used words like “all”, “everyone” or “the entire human race”, but always the word “many”. In Luke 22:19-20, He said that His body would be given and His blood would be shed for “you” (the disciples). In John 15:13, He said “Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends.” In summary, the Lord Jesus Christ clearly taught that He would give His life for His many sheep (disciples, friends). He NEVER taught that He would give His life for the entire human race.
3. What did the Apostles teach about the extent of the atonement in the Book of Acts?
The short answer to this question is “Not much.” It is an interesting fact that the Apostles never said “God loves you” or “Jesus died for your sins” or “Jesus died for the sins of the entire human race” in any of the sermons recorded in the Book of Acts. The Apostles preached Jesus as the Messiah (Christ) and Lord, crucified and resurrected, but they never explicitly said anything about whom He died for. They did explicitly say things like: “Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.” (Acts 2:38) “Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out …” (Acts 3:19) “Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.” (Acts 16:31) They emphasized “repentance toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ.” (Acts 20:21) The only verse in Acts that touches on the extent of the atonement is Acts 20:28, where Paul says to the elders of the church of Ephesus: “Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.” In this verse, Paul clearly taught that the Lord Jesus Christ purchased the Church of God with His blood. Nowhere in Acts does it say that He purchased the entire human race with His blood or died for the entire human race.
4. What did the Apostle Paul teach about the extent of the atonement in his epistles?
In stark contrast to the almost total silence of the Apostles in the Book of Acts on the subject, the Apostle Paul provided us with numerous references in his epistles.
In the book of Romans, Paul clearly taught that the Lord Jesus Christ died “for us” (believers, the elect). For example, in Romans 4:25 he said “Who was delivered for OUR offences, and was raised again for OUR justification.” In Romans 5:8-11 he said “But God commendeth his love toward US, in that, while WE were yet sinners, Christ died for US. Much more then, being now justified by his blood, WE shall be saved from wrath through him. For if, when WE were enemies, WE were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, WE shall be saved by his life. And not only so, but WE also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom WE have now received the atonement.” And in Romans 8:32 he said “He that spared not his own Son, but delivered him up for US all, how shall he not with him also freely give US all things” Notice that he said that we were “reconciled to God by the death of his Son” “when we were enemies” (Rom. 5:10). If the Lord Jesus Christ died for the entire human race, then the entire human race has been reconciled to God and will be saved. There are actually people who believe this is the case (universalists), but this is not a Biblical belief, in my opinion. But at least these people consistently apply their belief in “unlimited atonement.” Logically, “unlimited atonement” should result in “unlimited salvation” (universalism). Notice also what Paul said in Romans 8:32. If God really “delivered him up for” the entire human race, then “how shall he not with him also freely give … all things” to the entire human race (including repentance, faith, forgiveness, eternal life, etc.)? Why would God supposedly give someone the most precious gift (His Son) and yet withhold lesser gifts (such as repentace, faith, forgiveness, eternal life, etc.)? Paul also clearly taught that Christ died for the elect in Romans 8:33-34: “Who shall lay any thing to the charge of God’s ELECT? It is God that justifieth.” (i.e, the ELECT) “Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died,” (i.e., for the ELECT) “yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.” (i.e., the ELECT). By the way, speaking of “making intercession”, in John 17:9, the Lord Jesus Christ said “I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me”. If He (supposedly) was going to die for the entire human race, why did He only pray for those whom the Father had given Him (and NOT for the world)? I believe that He died for the same people that He prayed for, those whom the Father had given Him, the elect. I haven’t been able to find any verses in Romans where Paul said that the Lord Jesus Christ died for the entire human race.
Paul also clearly taught that the Lord Jesus Christ died “for us” (believers, the elect) in 1 Corinthians. For example, in 1 Corinthians 5:7b he said “For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for US” In 1 Corinthians 15:3 he said “For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for OUR sins according to the scriptures;” This passage is especially significant. Here Paul was defining the Gospel. If the Gospel is really about Christ dying for the sins of the entire human race, as so many believe, why didn’t Paul say so in this passage? Could it be that he didn’t say so because it isn’t true? I haven’t been able to find any verses in 1 Corinthians where Paul said that the Lord Jesus Christ died for the entire human race.
In 2 Corinthians, we finally encounter verses which some people try to use to teach that Christ died for the entire human race. In chapter 5, Paul said “For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.” (5:14-15). Notice, however, that Paul did not say that Christ died for “all men” but simply for “all”. Who was Paul referring to? The interpretation that “all” refers to the entire human race does not seem to me to fit the immediate context of the passage nor the larger context of the rest of the Bible. The interpretation that “all” refers to all true believers, all the elect, or as John Gill said, “all the people whom Jesus saves from their sins; … all the sheep for whom he laid down his life; … all the members of his church, whom he loved, and for whom he gave himself; or … all the sons for whom he tasted death, and, as the Captain of their salvation, brings to glory” seems to me to fit the immediate context of the passage as well as the larger context of the rest of the Bible. (By the way, when I have to choose between 2 alternative interpretations of a passage, one of which agrees with what the rest of the Bible teaches and one of which doesn’t, I tend to choose the one that agrees with the rest of the Bible.) John Gill’s excellent discussion of this passage in his book “The Cause of God and Truth” (Part 1, SECTION XXXIX) is quite convincing, in my opinion. Rather than quoting it at length, those who are interested can find it in one of the ebook versions that are available for free at Monergism (https://www.monergism.com/cause-god-and-truth-ebook). In a similar manner, the interpretation that “world” in verse 19 of the same chapter (“To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.”) refers to the entire human race does not seem to me to fit as well as the interpretation that it refers to all the elect, both Jews and Gentiles. Otherwise, if “world” referred to the entire human race, then this verse would be teaching that the entire human race has been reconciled to God and will be saved, which would contradict other passages of Scripture. Again, John Gill’s discussion of this passage in his book “The Cause of God and Truth” (Part 1, SECTION XL) is excellent, and those who are interested can find it as mentioned above. In the immediate context of this passage, Paul taught that God has “reconciled US to himself by Jesus Christ” (5:18) and “made him to be sin for US, who knew no sin; that WE might be made the righteousness of God in him.” (5:21), clearly referring to believers. Thus Paul clearly taught in 2 Corinthians that Christ died for believers (the elect).
He taught the same thing (that Christ died for believers (the elect)) in Galatians. In 1:3-4 he said “Grace be to you and peace from God the Father, and from our Lord Jesus Christ, Who gave himself for OUR sins, that he might deliver US from this present evil world, according to the will of God and our Father:” In 2:20 he said “I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved ME, and gave himself for ME.” In 3:13 he said “Christ hath redeemed US from the curse of the law, being made a curse for US: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:” And in 4:4-5 he said “But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that WE might receive the adoption of sons.” I haven’t been able to find any verses in Galatians where Paul said that the Lord Jesus Christ gave Himself for the entire human race or redeemed the entire human race.
In Ephesians, Paul clearly taught that the Lord Jesus Christ loved the elect (believers) and gave himself for them. In 5:2 he said “And walk in love, as Christ also hath loved US, and hath given himself for US an offering and a sacrifice to God for a sweetsmelling savour” and in 5:25 he said “Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved THE CHURCH, and gave himself for IT”. I haven’t been able to find any verses in Ephesians (or any of his other epistles) where Paul said that Christ loved the entire human race and gave himself for the entire human race. He did, however clearly teach election and predestination in this epistle (“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed US with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ: According as he hath CHOSEN US in him before the foundation of the world, that WE should be holy and without blame before him in love: Having PREDESTINATED US unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made US accepted in the beloved. In whom WE have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace; Wherein he hath abounded toward US in all wisdom and prudence; Having made known unto US the mystery of his will, according to his good pleasure which he hath purposed in himself: That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him: In whom also WE have obtained an inheritance, being PREDESTINATED according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will: That WE should be to the praise of his glory, who first trusted in Christ.” – 1:3-12).
I have not been able to find anything on the extent of the atonement in Philippians, but in Colossians (1:12-14), Paul taught that believers have been redeemed by the blood of Christ (“Giving thanks unto the Father, which hath made US meet to be partakers of the inheritance of the saints in light: Who hath delivered US from the power of darkness, and hath translated US into the kingdom of his dear Son: In whom WE have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins”). In the same chapter (1:20-22), he also taught that believers have have been reconciled to God by the death of Christ (“And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven. And YOU, that were sometime alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked works, yet now hath he reconciled In the body of his flesh through death, to present YOU holy and unblameable and unreproveable in his sight”). (By the way, whatever Paul meant by “to reconcile all things unto himself” (and I have seen a number of different interpretations of that phrase), he didn’t say that Christ died for the entire human race in this passage.) In Colossians 2:13-14, Paul also mentions benefits which believers derive from the death of Christ (“And YOU, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven YOU all trespasses; Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against US, which was contrary to US, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross”). I haven’t been able to find any verses in Colossians where Paul said that the Lord Jesus Christ died for the entire human race or redeemed the entire human race.
In 1 Thessalonians (5:9-10), Paul clearly taught that the Lord Jesus Christ died for believers (the elect), whom God has appointed to obtain salvation (“For God hath not appointed US to wrath, but to obtain salvation by our Lord Jesus Christ, Who died for US, that, whether WE wake or sleep, WE should live together with him.”). I haven’t been able to find any verses in 1 Thessalonians where Paul said that the Lord Jesus Christ died for the entire human race. (Do you see a pattern here?)
I haven’t been able to find any verses on the extent of the atonement in 2 Thessalonians, but there are some very interesting verses in chapter 2 that I would like to comment on briefly. In 2:11-12, Paul said “And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie: That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness.” If God really loves the entire human race and sent His Son to die for the sins of the entire human race, why will He send some of them “strong delusion, that they should believe a lie: That they all might be damned”? Sounds to me like He doesn’t love these people (at least not in the same way and to the same extent as He loves the elect) and didn’t send His Son to die for them. What a contrast is found in verse 13! There Paul said “But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for YOU, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen YOU to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth”. Believers (the elect) are “beloved of the Lord” and “from the beginning chosen … to salvation”.
In 1 Timothy, we again encounter verses which some people try to use to teach that Christ died for the entire human race. In 2:5-6, Paul said “For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.” As I said in the discussion of 2 Corinthians 5:14-15, the interpretation that “all” refers to the entire human race does not seem to me to fit the immediate context of the passage nor the larger context of the rest of the Bible. The word “all” is often used in a general sense and when referring to people, rarely, if ever, means, “the entire human race, with no exceptions.” As Tom Hicks says in his article “Does “All” Ever Mean “All” in Scripture?” (https://www.biblestudytools.com/bible-study/explore-the-bible/does-all-ever-mean-all-in-scripture.html): “The meaning of all in Scripture is always determined by the context, and rarely, if ever, means “all without any kind of limitation.”” The words “all men” is used in the immediate context (1 Tim. 2:1-2) to mean “all kinds of men” not “the entire human race”, and I believe it has the same meaning in v. 4 (“Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth”). In v. 6, does he really mean, as many believe, that Christ “gave himself a ransom for all men without exception”? If so, then “all men without exception” will be freed (from sin) and saved, because that is what is involved when “a ransom” has been paid. Since I don’t believe that “all men without exception” will be freed from sin and saved, I don’t believe Paul meant that, whatever it is that he really meant (whether “all kinds of men” or “all who will be saved” or “Gentiles as well as Jews” or something else). John Gill’s discussion of 1 Tim. 2:4 in his book “The Cause of God and Truth” (Part 1, SECTION XLV) is also worth consulting, and those who are interested can find it as mentioned above.
I haven’t been able to find any verses on the extent of the atonement in 2 Timothy, but there are some interesting verses that I would like to point out briefly. In 1:9, Paul said that God has saved us “not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace” and that this was “given us in Christ Jesus before the world began”. In 2:10, Paul said “Therefore I endure all things for the elect’s sakes, that they may also obtain the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with eternal glory.”
In Titus (2:13-14), Paul clearly taught that the Lord Jesus Christ gave Himself for US (believers, His people, the elect) and redeemed US (“Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; Who gave himself for US, that he might redeem US from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works.”). I haven’t been able to find any verses in Titus where Paul said that the Lord Jesus Christ gave Himself for the entire human race or redeemed the entire human race.
I haven’t been able to find any verses on the extent of the atonement in Philemon.
Although there are some who believe that Paul wrote Hebrews, since the author does not identify himself, I am going to deal with Hebrews in the answer to question 5.
In summary, in most of his epistles, Paul clearly taught that the Lord Jesus Christ died for US (believers, the elect, the Church). I have not been able to find a single verse in any of Paul’s epistles where he clearly SAID that the Lord Jesus Christ died for the entire human race, even though there are a few verses (in 2 Corinthians and 1 Timothy) which some people INTERPRET (incorrectly, in my opinion) in that way.
5. What did the writers of the rest of the New Testament teach about the extent of the atonement?
There are many references to the atonement in Hebrews. In Hebrews 1:3, the author mentions that the Son of God “by Himself purged OUR sins”. Notice that he did not say that He purged the sins of the entire human race but OUR sins (i.e. believers, the elect). Hebrews 2:9 is another verse which some people try to use to teach that Christ died for the entire human race: “But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, for the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that He, by the grace of God, might taste death for everyone.” (Heb 2:9 NKJV). The KJV has “every man” instead of “everyone”, but there is no word for “man” in the original Greek, just “every”. The interpretation that “every” or “everyone” refers to the entire human race does not seem to me to fit the immediate context of the passage nor the larger context of the rest of the Bible. The interpretation that “every” or “everyone” refers to every true believer, every one of the elect, seems to me to fit the immediate context of the passage as well as the larger context of the rest of the Bible. In his discussion on this verse in his massive commentary on Hebrews, John Owen says “for all men;—that is, all those many sons which God by his death intended to bring unto glory, verse 10; those sanctified by him, whom he calls his brethren, verses 11, 12, and children given him by God, verse 13; whom by death he delivers from the fear of death, verses 14, 15; even all the seed of Abraham, verse 16.” Similarly, George Smeaton in his discussion of this verse in his excellent book “The Doctrine of the Atonement As Taught By the Apostles” says that “every” or “everyone” refers to “that totality which was given to Christ,—the same persons who are designated “the many sons” to be brought to glory (ver. 10), and the ALL who are sanctified (ver. 11). This cannot be adduced in favor of the supposed universal atonement, as the reference in the context is most express to those who were actually to be saved by Christ.” In his commentary on this verse, John Gill says “Christ died, not merely as an example, or barely for the good of men, but as a surety, in their room and stead, and that not for every individual of mankind; for there are some he knows not; for some he does not pray; and there are some who will not be saved: the word “man” is not in the original text, it is only υπερ παντος, which may be taken either collectively, and be rendered “for the whole”; that is, the whole body, the church for whom Christ gave himself, and is the Savior of; or distributively, and be translated, “for everyone”; for everyone of the sons God brings to glory, Heb_2:10 for everyone of the “brethren”, whom Christ sanctifies, and he is not ashamed to own, and to whom he declares the name of God, Heb_2:11 for everyone of the members of the “church”, in the midst of which he sung praise, Heb_2:12 for every one of the “children” God has given him, and for whose sake he took part of flesh and blood, Heb_2:13 and for everyone of the “seed” of Abraham, in a spiritual sense, whose nature he assumed, Heb_2:16.” Hebrews 2:17 says “Therefore, in all things He had to be made like His brethren, that He might be a merciful and faithful High Priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.” (Heb 2:17 NKJV). Notice that it does not say “to make propitiation for the sins of the entire human race” but “for the sins of the people”, i.e., the people of God, believers, the elect; or as John Gill says in his commentary, “of God’s covenant people, the people he has chosen for himself, and given to his Son; and whom Christ saves from their sins, by making satisfaction for them, to the law and justice of God”. Hebrews 9:28 says “Christ was offered once to bear the sins of many.” (NKJV). Notice that it does not say “to bear the sins of the entire human race” but “the sins of many” (i.e., His sheep, the elect). Hebrews 10:10 says “By that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.” (NKJV). Notice that it is “we” (i.e., believers, the elect) who ” have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all”, not the entire human race. Likewise, Hebrews 10:14 says “For by one offering He has perfected forever those who are being sanctified.” (NKJV). It is “those who are being sanctified” that have been “perfected forever” by the “one offering”, not the entire human race. It does not say “by one offering He has made it possible for the entire human race to be perfected forever” but “by one offering He has perfected forever those who are being sanctified”. Hebrews 13:12 says “Therefore Jesus also, that He might sanctify the people with His own blood, suffered outside the gate.” (NKJV). It does not say “that He might sanctify the entire human race” or “that He might make it possible to sanctify the entire human race” but “that He might sanctify the people” (believers, the elect people of God).
I am not aware of any verses in the book of James that deal with the extent of the atonement.
(Unfortunately, I have not gotten around to going through 1 & 2 Peter, 1, 2 & 3 John, Jude and Revelation. This document will be updated when I finish doing that.)